Hello! I'm an expert in English language and grammar, and I'm here to help you with your question about the singular or plural nature of the word "woman" and its possessive form.
The word "woman" is singular in form, which means it refers to one individual. When we want to refer to more than one woman, we use the plural form, which is "women." The word "women" is already plural, and it is also the possessive form when indicating ownership or belonging by more than one woman. For example, "The women's coats" refers to the coats that belong to multiple women.
Now, when we want to show possession by a singular woman, we add an apostrophe and an "s" to the word "woman." So, the possessive form of "woman" is "woman's." For example, "The woman's coat" refers to the coat that belongs to one specific woman.
Let's look at the reference content you provided: "Women's. Because 'women' is already plural, and is possessive. Ergo, you just add the apostrophe 's'. It would only be womens' if womens without the apostrophe was the plural of woman."
The reference content is partially correct. It is true that "women" is the plural form and also the possessive form for more than one woman. However, the statement "It would only be womens' if womens without the apostrophe was the plural of woman" is incorrect. As I mentioned earlier, the possessive form of "woman" is "woman's," not "womens'." The apostrophe and "s" are added to the singular form to indicate possession, not to the plural form.
In conclusion, "woman" is singular, and its possessive form is "woman's." The plural form is "women," and the possessive form for multiple women is "women's." It's important to use the correct form depending on whether you are referring to one woman or more than one, and whether you are indicating possession.
I hope this explanation clears up any confusion. If you have any more questions about English grammar or any other topic, feel free to ask!
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